Question
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Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove the following. Using methods
ther than the Mean Value Theorem will yield no marks. Show all
easoning.
(a) when .

Ask by Hodges Wood. in Canada
Mar 25,2025

Upstudy AI Solution

Tutor-Verified Answer

Answer

To prove that for using the Mean Value Theorem:
  1. Define .
  2. Show .
  3. Find for .
  4. Apply MVT to conclude for .
  5. Therefore, holds for .

Solution

To prove that for using the Mean Value Theorem (MVT), we will follow these steps:
  1. Define the Functions: Let . We want to show that for .
  2. Check the Conditions for MVT: The function is continuous on the interval (for any ) and differentiable on the interval .
  3. Calculate :
  4. Calculate the Derivative :
    Since for , we have:
    This means that is always positive for .
  5. Apply the Mean Value Theorem: According to the MVT, since is continuous on and differentiable on , there exists some such that:
    Since , we have:
    Given that , we can conclude:
  6. Evaluate : Since , we have:
    This simplifies to:
    which is true since for all .
  7. Conclusion: Therefore, we have shown that for , which implies:
Thus, the statement is proven for using the Mean Value Theorem.

Answered by UpStudy AI and reviewed by a Professional Tutor

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Simplify this solution

Mind Expander

To apply the Mean Value Theorem (MVT), we first define a continuous function on the interval [0, x] (with ):
This function is continuous on the closed interval [0, x] and differentiable on the open interval (0, x). Now we evaluate at the endpoints:
At :
At :
According to the MVT, there exists some in (0, x) such that:
Now, we compute :
Since has a maximum of 1, we have:
This means for any . Thus, is decreasing on (0, x), implying :
This simplifies to the desired inequality:
Solid proof through the MVT!

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