Question
Use the Mean Value Theorem to prove the following. Using methods
ther than the Mean Value Theorem will yield no marks. Show all
easoning.
(a)
when
.
ther than the Mean Value Theorem will yield no marks. Show all
easoning.
(a)
Ask by Hodges Wood. in Canada
Mar 25,2025
Upstudy AI Solution
Tutor-Verified Answer
Answer
To prove that
for
using the Mean Value Theorem:
- Define
. - Show
. - Find
for . - Apply MVT to conclude
for . - Therefore,
holds for .
Solution
To prove that
for
using the Mean Value Theorem (MVT), we will follow these steps:
-
Define the Functions: Let
. We want to show that for . -
Check the Conditions for MVT: The function
is continuous on the interval (for any ) and differentiable on the interval . -
Calculate
: -
Calculate the Derivative
: Sincefor , we have: This means thatis always positive for . -
Apply the Mean Value Theorem: According to the MVT, since
is continuous on and differentiable on , there exists some such that: Since, we have: Given that, we can conclude: -
Evaluate
: Since , we have: This simplifies to:which is true sincefor all . -
Conclusion: Therefore, we have shown that
for , which implies:
Thus, the statement
is proven for
using the Mean Value Theorem.
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Mind Expander
To apply the Mean Value Theorem (MVT), we first define a continuous function on the interval [0, x] (with
):
This function is continuous on the closed interval [0, x] and differentiable on the open interval (0, x). Now we evaluate at the endpoints:
At
:
At
:
According to the MVT, there exists some
in (0, x) such that:
Now, we compute
:
Since
has a maximum of 1, we have:
This means
for any
. Thus,
is decreasing on (0, x), implying
:
This simplifies to the desired inequality:
Solid proof through the MVT!