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Present value (with changing interest rates). Marty has been offered an injury settlement of \( \$ 10,000 \) payable in 3 years. He wants to know what the present value of the injury settlement is if his opportunity cost is \( 4 \% \). (The opportunity cost is the interest rate in this problem.) What if the opportunity cost is \( 6.5 \% \) ? What if it is \( 10.5 \% \) ? If Marty's opportunity cost is \( 4 \% \), what is the present value of the injury settlement? \( \$ 8889.96 \) (Round to the nearest cent.) If Marty's opportunity cost is \( 6.5 \% \), what is the present value of the injury settlement? \( \$ \square \) (Round to the nearest cent.)

Ask by Morrison Barber. in the United States
Jan 22,2025

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Tutor-Verified Answer

Answer

If Marty's opportunity cost is 6.5%, the present value of the injury settlement is \$8,278.49.

Solution

To determine the present value (PV) of Marty's injury settlement of \$10,000 payable in 3 years, we'll use the **Present Value formula**: \[ PV = \frac{FV}{(1 + r)^t} \] Where: - \( FV \) = Future Value (\$10,000) - \( r \) = Opportunity Cost (interest rate) - \( t \) = Time in years (3 years) ### 1. When Opportunity Cost is **6.5%**: \[ PV = \frac{10,000}{(1 + 0.065)^3} \] First, calculate \( (1 + 0.065)^3 \): \[ 1.065^3 \approx 1.20795 \] Now, calculate the present value: \[ PV = \frac{10,000}{1.20795} \approx 8,278.49 \] **Therefore, the present value is \$8,278.49 when the opportunity cost is 6.5%.** ### 2. Summary for Different Opportunity Costs: - **4% Opportunity Cost:** \[ PV = \frac{10,000}{(1 + 0.04)^3} \approx 8,889.96 \] - **6.5% Opportunity Cost:** \[ PV \approx \$8,278.49 \] - **10.5% Opportunity Cost:** \[ PV = \frac{10,000}{(1 + 0.105)^3} \approx 7,392.83 \] ### **Final Answer:** If Marty's opportunity cost is **6.5%**, the present value of the injury settlement is **\$8,278.49**. \[ \boxed{8278.49} \]

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To find the present value (PV) of Marty's injury settlement at different opportunity costs, we'll use the present value formula: \[ PV = \frac{FV}{(1 + r)^n} \] where: - \( FV \) = future value (the settlement amount, \( \$10,000 \)) - \( r \) = opportunity cost (interest rate) - \( n \) = number of years until payment (3 years) For a \( 6.5\% \) opportunity cost, the calculation would be: \[ PV = \frac{10,000}{(1 + 0.065)^3} = \frac{10,000}{(1.065)^3} \approx \frac{10,000}{1.2071} \approx 8287.84 \] If we round to the nearest cent, the present value for \( 6.5\% \) is roughly \( \$8287.84 \). Now, for a \( 10.5\% \) opportunity cost: \[ PV = \frac{10,000}{(1 + 0.105)^3} = \frac{10,000}{(1.105)^3} \approx \frac{10,000}{1.3444} \approx 7433.41 \] So, at \( 10.5\% \), the present value rounds to \( \$7433.41 \). In summary, Marty's present values at different opportunity costs are: - \( 4\%: \$8889.96 \) - \( 6.5\%: \$8287.84 \) - \( 10.5\%: \$7433.41 \) Now, isn’t it interesting how opportunity cost can change the value perception of money over time? What seems to be a fixed future amount today can take on different meanings based on various interest rates!

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