Question
Divide \( \frac{1}{4} \div \frac{1}{6} \). Write the answer as a mixed number in lowest te Submit Question
Ask by Hall Edwards. in the United States
Jan 22,2025
Real Tutor Solution
Tutor-Verified Answer
Answer
The answer is \(1 \frac{1}{2}\).
Solution
To divide \(\frac{1}{4}\) by \(\frac{1}{6}\) and express the result as a mixed number in lowest terms, follow these steps:
1. **Division of Fractions**:
\[
\frac{1}{4} \div \frac{1}{6} = \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{6}{1}
\]
2. **Multiply the Fractions**:
\[
\frac{1 \times 6}{4 \times 1} = \frac{6}{4}
\]
3. **Simplify the Fraction**:
\[
\frac{6}{4} = \frac{3}{2}
\]
4. **Convert to a Mixed Number**:
\[
\frac{3}{2} = 1 \frac{1}{2}
\]
**Final Answer**:
\[
1 \frac{1}{2}
\]
Reviewed and approved by the UpStudy tutoring team
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Simplify this solution Beyond the Answer
To divide fractions, you multiply by the reciprocal. So, \( \frac{1}{4} \div \frac{1}{6} \) becomes \( \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{6}{1} \). Now, when you multiply, you get \( \frac{1 \times 6}{4 \times 1} = \frac{6}{4} \). To convert \( \frac{6}{4} \) into a mixed number, divide 6 by 4. This gives 1 with a remainder of 2, so \( \frac{6}{4} = 1 \frac{2}{4} \). Finally, simplify \( \frac{2}{4} \) to \( \frac{1}{2} \). Therefore, the answer is \( 1 \frac{1}{2} \).
