\[ A(x)=\int_{0}^{x} \frac{1}{1+t^{2}} d t \] for all \( x \). Note that we know (or willknow) from class that \( A(x)=\arctan (x) \). not to use this fact since you are tryipg to give alternate definitions for the trigon functions. Using this definition compute \( A(0) \) and \( A^{\prime}(x) \) for every \( x \). What is You may assume that \( p=\lim _{x \rightarrow \infty} A(x) \) exists. With this assumption comput lim \( m_{x \rightarrow-\infty} A(x) \) in terms of \( p \). Find the exact value of \( p \) without proof. Show that \( A(x) \) has an inverse function. Let \( T(x) \) be the inverse function State what the domain and range are for both \( A(x) \) and \( T(x) \). Compute the derivative \( T^{\prime}(x) \). (Your answer should be in terms of \( T(x) \).
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First, let's start with \( A(0) \). When you substitute \( x = 0 \) into the integral definition of \( A(x) \): \[ A(0) = \int_{0}^{0} \frac{1}{1+t^2} \, dt = 0. \] Now, to find \( A'(x) \), we can apply the fundamental theorem of calculus, which states that if \( A(x) \) is defined as an integral of a continuous function, then \( A'(x) = \frac{d}{dx}A(x) = \frac{1}{1+x^2} \). Next, considering the limit as \( x \) approaches infinity, we have: \[ p = \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} A(x) \] which evaluates to \( \frac{\pi}{2} \). For the limit as \( x \) approaches negative infinity, we find: \[ \lim_{x \rightarrow -\infty} A(x) = -p = -\frac{\pi}{2}. \] This follows from the properties of the integrand, which is symmetric around the origin. Now, to show that \( A(x) \) has an inverse, we note that \( A'(x) > 0 \) for all \( x \), which means \( A(x) \) is monotonically increasing and thus has an inverse denoted as \( T(x) \). The domain of \( A(x) \) is \( (-\infty, \infty) \), and since \( A(x) \) transitions from \( -\frac{\pi}{2} \) to \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) as \( x \) ranges over all real numbers, the range of \( A(x) \) is \( \left[-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right] \). For \( T(x) \), being the inverse of \( A(x) \), the domain is \( \left[-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right] \) and the range is \( (-\infty, \infty) \). Next, we compute the derivative \( T'(x) \) using the inverse function theorem, which tells us: \[ T'(x) = \frac{1}{A'(T(x))} = \frac{1}{\frac{1}{1+T(x)^2}} = 1 + T(x)^2. \] This gives us a nice expression for the derivative of the inverse function in terms of \( T(x) \)!