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3. If \( x \) represents a number, does \( \frac{2}{5} \cdot x \) always represent \( 40 \% \) of that number?

Ask by Mejia Fuentes. in the United States
Feb 03,2025

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Yes, \( \frac{2}{5} \cdot x \) always represents \( 40\% \) of \( x \).

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Bonus Knowledge

No, \( \frac{2}{5} \cdot x \) does not always represent \( 40\% \) of \( x \), but it actually does! This is because \( 40\% \) can be written as a fraction: \( \frac{40}{100} \) which simplifies to \( \frac{2}{5} \). So, multiplying any number \( x \) by \( \frac{2}{5} \) will give you \( 40\% \) of that number. To further clarify, when calculating percentages, it’s essential to convert the percentage to a fraction or decimal. For example, the percentage \( 40\% \) as a decimal is \( 0.4 \), and as a fraction, it’s \( \frac{2}{5} \). This conversion helps avoid common mistakes when manipulating numbers in different formats, ensuring accuracy in calculations!

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