Is it possible for a country to have a comparative advantage in producing a good without also having an absolute advantage? A. will have a comparative advantage if it has a lower opportunity cost of producing that good. B. will not have a comparative advantage because it has fewer resources. C. will have a comparative advantage if it is able to produce that good at a low total cost. D. will have a comparative advantage if it produces more efficiently. E. will have a comparative advantage if it devotes more resources toward that good's production.
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Absolutely! A country can have a comparative advantage without having an absolute advantage. You see, comparative advantage is all about opportunity costs. If a country can produce a good at a lower opportunity cost than another country—even if it produces less of that good overall—it can specialize effectively, leading to trade benefits. For example, think of two countries: one excels at making wine, while the other is better at producing textiles. Even if the textile country isn’t as efficient at making wine overall, if it gives up fewer textiles to produce wine than the wine country does, it has a comparative advantage in wine production! This is the magic of interdependence in trade!