Steven says, "I would rather have \( \frac{5}{9} \) of \( \$ 72 \) than \( \frac{4}{6} \) because I will get more to spend." Is he correct?

To find out if Steven is correct, let's calculate both amounts he mentions. First, for \( \frac{5}{9} \) of \( \$72 \): \[ \frac{5}{9} \times 72 = \frac{360}{9} = \$40 \] Next, we simplify \( \frac{4}{6} \): \[ \frac{4}{6} = \frac{2}{3} \] Now calculate \( \frac{2}{3} \) of \( \$72 \): \[ \frac{2}{3} \times 72 = \frac{144}{3} = \$48 \] So, Steven would get \( \$40 \) from \( \frac{5}{9} \) of \( \$72 \) and \( \$48 \) from \( \frac{4}{6} \). Therefore, Steven is not correct; he would actually get more money from \( \frac{4}{6} \) of \( \$72 \).