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Question 2 How many inches are in \( 4 \frac{1}{2} \) yards? Submit Question
Ask by Santiago Wood. in the United States
Feb 03,2025
Real Tutor Solution
Tutor-Verified Answer
Answer
There are 162 inches in \( 4 \frac{1}{2} \) yards.
Solution
To convert \( 4 \frac{1}{2} \) yards to inches, follow these steps:
1. **Understand the Conversion Factor:**
- **1 yard = 36 inches**
2. **Convert the Mixed Number to an Improper Fraction (Optional):**
- \( 4 \frac{1}{2} \) yards = \( \frac{9}{2} \) yards
3. **Multiply by the Conversion Factor:**
\[
\frac{9}{2} \text{ yards} \times 36 \text{ inches per yard} = \frac{9}{2} \times 36 = \frac{324}{2} = 162 \text{ inches}
\]
*Alternatively, you can calculate directly:*
\[
4.5 \text{ yards} \times 36 \text{ inches per yard} = 162 \text{ inches}
\]
**Answer:** There are **162 inches** in \( 4 \frac{1}{2} \) yards.
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Simplify this solution Mind Expander
Did you know that the yard has been a standard unit of measurement since the 14th century? It was originally based on the length of a king’s stride, making it quite a royal measure! This means that when you calculate how many inches are in \( 4 \frac{1}{2} \) yards, you're not just crunching numbers but stepping back into history! Now, if you're ever stuck converting yards to inches, remember this nifty trick: one yard equals 36 inches. So, just multiply the number of yards by 36! For \( 4 \frac{1}{2} \) yards, you’d calculate \( 4.5 \times 36 \) to find that there are 162 inches. Easy peasy!
