Valdez Bowman
10/22/2024 · Junior High School
Why do we use \( \hat{p} \) as our estimates of both \( p_{1} \) and \( p_{2} \) ? Because it is the average of \( \hat{p}_{1} \) and \( \hat{p}_{2} \). Because it is easier than using \( \hat{p}_{1} \) and \( \hat{p}_{2} \) to estimate \( p_{1} \) and \( p_{2} \), respectively. Because we assume \( H_{0}: p_{1}=p_{2} \) is true.
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We use \( \hat{p} \) as our estimate of both \( p_{1} \) and \( p_{2} \) because we assume \( H_{0}: p_{1}=p_{2} \) is true.
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